Why is there 16% of the data above z = 1?

Why is there 16% of the data above z = 1?

VISUAL ANSWER: If you start this video I have in a previous Course FAQ post (https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Dh5sBdlVPaA&feature=youtu.be) at 3 minutes and 21 seconds, you will see me explain why it is 16% while drawing out the normal curve.

OTHER ANSWERS: I have the explanation also in words on the Measures of Spread Google Doc  in Module 3, right below my comment about 16% of the data is above. I will expand on that in two ways below to help with this idea.

1st way:

  • There is 100% for total area under the curve.

–> If 68% lies within ± 1 standard deviations, then 32% is left over.  (100 – 68 = 32.)

  • 32% is left over then below -1 and above 1. 

–> The normal curve is symmetrical so if there is a total of 32% left over in these two tail ends of the curve, we would have 16% in each tail.  (32 / 2 = 16.)

Let’s check to make sure we have a total of 100% for the curve:

  • All the way at the left end to z =  -1 (16%)
  • 68% lies within ± 1 standard deviations  // From -1 to 0 (34%) From 0 to 1 (34%)
  • Above z =  1 (16%)

——————————–

Another way to think about it:

  • 68 % of the data is from z =  -1 to z = 1
  • 34% from -1 to 0 and 34 % from 0 to 1 (since the standard normal curve is symmetrical)

We want ABOVE z = 1.

  • We know that half the curve on the left will have 50% of the data and
  • We know that half the curve on the right will have 50% of the data.

Looking JUST at the right side of the curve from z = 0 to the right end:

  • from z = 0 to z = 1 (34%)
  • from 0 to the right end aka half the curve (50%)
To figure out z = 1 to the right end then we would take the total right half (50%) and subtract the piece we know (34%) from 0 to 1.
This gives us 16% (50 – 34 = 16.)